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age.child
bool
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7d594a8d-cfd5-458a-a7ce-1cb6ab7633ba
True about myasthenia gravis -
Associated with thymomoa in 3/4 of cases
Incremental response seen with repetitive electric stimuli
Skeletal muscle function improve after rest
↑ Aceytylcholine receptor
2
multi
null
Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
6f83a4b8-f0bd-4ca6-b081-247444102d5e
The impoant coreceptors for HIV to bind with CD4 receptors are:
CCR4 and CXCR3
CCR5 and CXCR4
CCR4 and CXCR5
CCR4 and CXCR2
1
single
The primary cellular receptor for HIV is CD4 (Helper subset of T cells). HIV has two major coreceptors: CCR5 and CXCR4 (for fusion and entry)ALSO KNOW:Kaposi's sarcoma cannot be explained completely by the immunodeficiency caused by HIV infection. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-1519.
Pathology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
5ae303fc-d5a4-4fe0-b1e4-1458526a81ba
Which malocclusion will not lead to straining of Lips?
Class - II Div. 1
Class-II Div. 2
Bimaxillary protrusion
None
1
multi
null
Dental
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
c0b6a0e8-b1d7-4ebb-915e-ec71795ae814
All of the following are true regarding zenkers diveiculum except
It is a false diveiculum
It occurs in children
It is a posterior pharyngeal pulsion diveiculum
M/C site for diveiculum is killians dehiscence
1
multi
PHARYNGEAL POUCH Also called hypopharyngeal diveiculum or Zenker's diveiculum, it is a pulsion diveiculum where pharyngeal mucosa herniates through the Killian's dehiscence--a weak area between two pas of the inferior constrictor. AETIOLOGY :- Exact cause is not known. It is probably due to spasm of cricopharyngeal sphincter or its incoordinated contractions during the act of deglutition. It is usually seen after 60 years of age. PATHOLOGY :- Herniation of pouch stas in the midline. It is at first behind the oesophagus and then comes to lie on its left. Mouth of the sac is wider than the opening of oesophagus and food preferentially enters the sac. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-274
ENT
Pharynx
false
false
false
false
false
false
9bf0dd00-6914-4732-aa54-29c23afaea82
In donovanosis-
Pseudolymphadenopathy
Penicillin is used for treatment
Painful ulcer
Suppurative lymphadenopathy
0
single
Ans. is `a' i.e., Pseudolymphadenopathy Donovanosis Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis. C. granulomatis is ? - Gram negative - Encapsulated - Nonmotile - Intracellular It shares many morphologic and serologic characteristic (antigenic) and > 99% homology at the nucleotide level with Klebsiella. Clinical manifestations - IP --) 1-4 weeks - Begins as one or more subcutaneous nodules that erode through skin to produce clean, granulomatous, sharply defined, usually painless lesions. - The genitalia are involved in 90% of cases. - Genital swelling, paicularly of labia, is common. - In donovanosis, heaped-up granulomatous tissue may follow and subcutaneous extension to inguinal area may form "pseudo-buboes"; however, the absence of true lymphadenopathy is the hallmark of this infection. - Complications Pseudoelephantiasis, phimosis and paraphimosis. Diagnosis: - The preferred diagnostic method involves demonstration of typical intracellular Donovan bodies within large mononuclear cells visualized in smears prepared from lesions or biopsy specimens. - Stain used is wright - Giemsa Treatment: - Azithromycin (DOC) - Doxycycline (2'd choice) - Chloramphenicol
Microbiology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
a7aeb17d-5c43-46f4-b130-81a23bb1e988
Sensorimotor stage of cognitive development is characterized by
Egocentricism
Symbolic play
Animism
Conservation
1
single
null
Dental
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
0189c0d4-f07b-4eac-af39-9d59fde71109
Which of the following drug is used in sickle cell anemia?
Hydroxyurea
Carmustine
Paclitaxel
Bleomycin
0
single
Ans. a. Hydroxyurea The only drug approved by US FDA for the treatment of sickle cell anemia is hydroxyurea.Hydroxyurea in Sickle Cell Anemia* The only drug approved by US FDA for the treatment of sickle cell anemia is hydroxyurea.* Hydroxyurea increases total and fetal hemoglobin in children with sickle cell disease.* The increase in fetal hemoglobin retards sickling of RBCs.* Hydroxyurea also reduces the level of circulating leucocytes. This decreases the adherence of neutrophils to the vascular endothelium in turn theses effects reduce the incidence of pain episodes and acute chest syndrome episodes.
Pharmacology
Anti-Neoplastic Agents
false
false
false
false
false
false
4b6db4a7-faf7-4bd0-845d-c12dc24dc887
Human placenta is:
Hemochorial
Endothen - esdothelima
Chorio - endothelial
Non-Discoidal
0
single
Ans-A (Hemochorial) Ref: DC Dutta's Textbook of Obstetrics, 7th edn, pg 28Explanation:Human placentaStarts developing at 6 weeks and completed by 12 weeksHuman placenta is discoid, hemochorial, deciduateDevelopment of placentaFetal part - chorion frondosumMaternal part - deciduas hasalisCleavage of placenta following delivery occurs through deciduas spongiosumNormal weight - 500 gmsFunctional unit of placenta - chorionic villiUmbilical artery has 2 arteries and one veinNitabuch's membrane is absent in placenta accretaBlood flow in feto placental unit at term 500 ml/ minOxygen saturation inUmbilical vein -70-80 %Umbilical artery - 50 -60 %Intervillous space is filled with maternal bloodVolume of blood in mature placenta - 500 ml
Unknown
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
3b8291c6-46fb-433f-a76e-d3aba9ee79d1
A 35 year old man taking steroids for a long time on withdrawal developed fever and generalised pustules all over his body, what can be possible cause?
Drug eruption
Bacterial infection
Septicaemia
Pustular Psoriasis
3
multi
Pustular psoriasis develops on -1. Withdrawal of systemic coicosteroids2. Application of contact irritants like coal tar, dithranol
Dental
Psoriasis
false
false
true
false
true
false
d95202e9-0cfa-4e00-b742-15bf91c9bf6a
All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade, except:
Kussmaul's sign
Pulsus paradoxus
Electrical alternans
Right ventricular diastolic collapse on echocardiogram
0
multi
Kussmaul's sign is an increase rather than the normal decrease in CVP during inspiration, is most often caused by severe right-sided hea failure; it is a frequent finding in patients with constrictive pericarditis or right ventricular infarction. Kussmaul's sign is present in constrictive pericarditis and its is a clinical sign differentiating cardiac tamponade from constrictive pericarditis. Kussmaul's sign is a rare in cardiac tamponade. All other features mentioned above are associated with cardiac tamponade. So "Kussmaul's sign" is the single best answer of choice. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 1415-17.
Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
e7d6968b-02ad-4946-b92c-595a86e70681
Stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors causes:
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Either bradycardia or tachycardia
Neither bradycardia nor tachycardia
2
single
Peripheral chemoreceptor in the carotid and aoic bodies can produce variable effects on hea rate- Direct Effect: Vagal stimulation- Bradycardia Indirect effect : Hypoxia- Peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation - Hyperventilation and increased catecholamine secretion - Tachycardia and increased cardiac output Chemoreceptor reflex Receptors Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aoic bodies Central chemoreceptors in the medulla. Stimulus Decrease in PaO2 Increase in Pa CO2, H+ ion conc Afferent IX (sinus nerve of Hering) and X (Vagus N) Center for Reflex Medulla Efferent Sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons to hea vasculature and adrenal medulla. Response Direct effect: Bradycardia Indirect effect: Hyperventilation , tachycardia, vasoconstriction, increased cardiac output and increased BP. Ref: Ganong&; s Review of Medical Physiology 26th edition Pgno: 581, 582
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
false
false
false
false
false
false
c440f4a9-4471-4d93-b9a1-024d8ea0f06d
A elderly female presented with history of progressive right-sided weakness and speech difficulty. She gives a history of a fall in her bathroom two months back. The most likely clinical diagnosis is :
Progressive supranuclear palsy
Left cerebral tumor
Left sided stroke
Left chronic subdural haematoma
3
multi
Answer is D (Left chronic subdural haematoma) : Progressively increasing right sided focal neurological signs over a period of one month along with papilloedema suggest a diagnosis of an IntraCranial Space Occurring Lesion. (ICSOL). Given the history of head trauma in an elderly female chronic subdural haematoma is the diagnosis of choice. Chronic subdural haematoma : Chronic subdural haematoma is the common in conditions of cerebral atrophy notably old age and alcoholism. Minor trauma leads to a little insignificant bleeding in subdural space that goes unnoticed. As the blood breaks down over the next few weeks or months, fluids is drawn into subdural space because the breakdown products are hyperosmolol and membrane forms. This collection gradually enlarges and compress the brain producing focal neurological defecits mimicking tumor.
Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
true
60227b2e-f5b3-4632-8656-ebcc1b06e181
A person suffers from B27 associated reactive ahritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis. Which is most likely organism involved in this case?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Beta-hemolytic streptococci
Streptococcus bovis
1
single
Agents responsible for Reiter's syndrome: Salmonella enteritidis S. typhimurium S. heidelberg Yersinia enterocolitica Y. pseudotuberculosis Campylobacter fetus Shigella flexneri Genitourinary pathogens (such as Chlamydia or Ureaplasma urealyticum) Ref: Suurmond D. (2009). Section 14. The Skin in Immune, Autoimmune, and Rheumatic Disorders. In D. Suurmond (Ed), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 6e.
Skin
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
7bdd97cb-8138-480f-a3cf-30fb8094ba12
Battles sign is extopic manifestation of?
Anterior cranial fossa fracture
Middle cranial fossa fracture
Posterior cranial fossa fracture
Orbital fracture
1
single
Ecchymosis over the mastoid procens following fracture of middle cranial fossa is called Battles sign.
Forensic Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
969f519b-be8b-4e2a-acd8-cfb185982990
True about conversion of 20C fatty acid conversion to prostaglandin synthase
First PG synthesized is PGI I2
It is rate limiting enzyme
It convees PGI H2 to PGI E2
The primary prostaglandin is PG H2
3
multi
Biosynthesis of Prostaglandins Prostaglandins are derived from the PUFA, the three series being derived from the following fatty acids. 1 series (1 double bond) -from Linoleic acid 2 series (2 double bonds)-from Arachidonic acid 3 series (3 double bonds)-Eicosa Penta-enoic Naturally occurring PGs belong to the 2 series. i. PGs are not stored as such; the precursor fatty acids are stored in membrane as phospholipids. The arachidonic acid is released by the action of phospholipase A2 on phospholipids (Fig. 13.3). ii. Synthesis is catalyzed by Prostaglandin H synthase (PGHS). It contains two separate enzyme activities, cyclo-oxygenase, and peroxidase. iii. PGG2 and PGH2 are formed as intermediates during the synthesis of other PGs. Specific enzymes conve PGH2 to other prostaglandinsRef: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 164
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
false
false
false
false
false
false
71844548-ef22-41e2-8492-82bf79bfa35a
According to Universal system the primary right central incisor is coded as:
A
F
E
O
2
single
null
Dental
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
b37fe7f8-f8e7-42d7-b5ab-97400983edcb
Call - Exner bodies are seen in :
Theca cell tumour
Fibromas
Granulosa cell tumour
None of the above
2
multi
Granulosa cell tumour
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
fcf1c185-272f-46af-be4e-0a8692d36e73
Muscle supplied by median nerve:
Opponens pollicis
Abductor pollicis brevis
Flexor pollicis brevis
All
3
multi
A, B, C, i.e. Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis, & First lumbricals
Anatomy
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
4eb37883-9482-4831-81bd-a6ab7dffb9ae
Tetrodotoxin blocks
yNa+ during action potential
yK+ during action potential
yNa+ during resting state
yK+ during resting state
0
single
A i.e. y Na+ during action potentialInhibitors & toxinsSodium dependent glucose transpoer (SGLT or Na+ glucose co transpoer) is inhibited by phlorizinQ whereas, phloretin inhibits sodium (Na+) independent glucose transpoer (GLUT 2) in intestineQ.Fish neurotoxin tetrodotoxin (applied externally) block Na' channelsQ (esp early membrane voltage dependent Na' current; hence 'm' gates controlling Na' channels externally) where as enzyme pronase (applied internally) block voltage dependent inactivation of Na* current (hence 'h.' gates controlling Na' channels from inside).Tetraethyl ammonium or 4 aminopyridine block potassium channelQ (esp delyed voltage dependent increase in K* permeability and hence 'n' gate).Absorption of Hexose in intestineHexoses are rapidly and completely absorbed before the meal reach terminal ileumTranspo of most hexoses (glucose & galactose) is dependent on Na' ions in intestinal lumen; a high Na' concentration facilitates and a low concenteration inhibits sugar influx into the epithelial cells.This is because Na' & glucose share a same cotranspoer or sympo, the sodium dependent glucose transmpoer (SGLT), Na' glucose cntranspoer). These (SGLT 1 & 2) resemble glucose transpoers responsible for facilitated diffusion in that they cross cell membrane 12 times and have their - COOH & - NH2 terminals on cytoplasmic side of membrane. However , there is no homology to glucose transpoer (GLUT). SGLT- 1 is responsible for uptake of dietary glucose from gut where as SGLT-2 is responsible for glucose transpo out of renal tubules.
Physiology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
7c7ed4e0-932f-4c3a-82bd-ac60a642d77a
Indirect coombs test detect -
Antibodies attached to RBC surface
Antigen in serum
Antibodies in the serum
Antigen attached to RBC surface
2
single
null
Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
e91c2118-9e66-4c8e-b44c-5e524ff8be7b
Active reabsorption of glucose occurs in the ?
Distal tubule
Proximal tubule
Loop of henle
Collecting ducts
1
single
B i.e. Proximal tubuleProximal convoluted tubule (early pa) reabsorbs almost all of glucose, amino acids, protein, lactate & inorganic phosphate and most (65%) of bicorbonate,Na+,11)0, K+ and CI Q. PCT is also an impoant site for secretion of organic acids and bases such as oxalate, urate, bile salts, H+ and catecholamines, along with toxins, drugs eg penicillin, salicylates and PAH. So its' a work horse of nephronQ.
Physiology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
fc5ba7c2-425e-4d0d-81af-67d294537de0
The antidiabetic drug with anorectic effect is
Liraglutide
Gliclazide
Acarbose
Chlorpropamide
0
single
Oral hypoglycemic agents Enhance insulin secretion Sulfonylureas ( K-ATP channel blockers )I - TolbutamideSafer in elderly & those prone to hypoglycemia, Controls postprandial hyperglycemia II - Glibenclamide, Glipizide, Gliclazide, GlimepiridePotent drugs with lower incidence of hypoglycemic attacks Meglitinide analogues Repaglinide, NateglinideStimulates insulin secretion & limits post prandial hypoglycaemiaGLP-1 receptor agonists Exenatide, Liraglutide Lowers post prandial hypoglycaemia , fasting blood glucose , HbA1c and body weight Produces anorectic effect DPP 4 inhibitors Sitagliptin, Vida gliptin, Saxagliptin, Alogliptin, LinagliptinBoosts postprandial insulin release, decreases glucagon secretion, lowers meal time & fasting blood glucose Overcome insulin resistanceBiguanide ( AMP-K activator )Metformin Suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis, enhances insulin-mediated glucose uptake in skeletal muscle & fat, promotes peripheral glucose utilization Thiazolidinediones ( PPARg activator )Pioglitazone, Rosiglitazone, Troglitazone Suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis, an activator of genes regulating fatty acid metabolism & lipogenesis in adipose tissue, lowers HbA1c and insulin levels Miscellaneous drugsa-glucosidase inhibitors Acarbose , Voglibose , Miglitol Reduces post prandial glycemia , lowers HbA1C levels Amylin analogue Pramlintide Delay gastric emptying, retard glucose absorption & promotes satiety Dopamine D2 receptor agonist Bromocriptine Suppresses glycemic peak, reduce body weight SGLT - 2 inhibitor Dapagliflozin, CanagliflozinProduces round the clock glucosuria, lowers blood glucose levels
Anatomy
All India exam
false
false
false
false
false
false
f26a83f3-f998-49d3-a803-e54443a4fa0e
Most common mode of lead poisoning-
Ingestion
Dermally
Inhalation
Through conjunctiva
2
multi
Mode.of absorption of lead is by inhalation, ingestion and through skin.Most cases of industrial lead poisoning is due to inhalation of fumes and dust of lead or its compounds.(Ref.PARK'S textbook of preventive and social medicine 21st edition page no.748)
Social & Preventive Medicine
Hospital waste and disaster management, Occupational health
false
false
false
false
false
false
89eaf7b4-b904-4924-ab6a-85f62ad5d8f9
Shoest acting coicosteroid he following is?
Dexamethasone
Hydrocoisone
Triamcinolone
Deflazaco
1
single
Sho acting steroids - Coisone Hydrocoisone Intermediate acting - Prednisone Prednisolone Triamcinolone Long acting - Dexamethasone Betamethasone Paramethasone
Pharmacology
FMGE 2019
false
false
false
false
true
false
dc7b3d89-508d-48c8-8e62-16e7141d480d
A patient who underwent extensive bowel resection is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for 1 month. Endoscopy done after one month reveals diffuse gastric mucosal atrophy. Which enzyme deficiencies are most likely responsible for gastric mucosal atrophy in this patient?
Gastrin and ghrelin
Secretin and CCK
Gastrin and CCK
Gastrin and secretin
2
single
Ans. (c) Gastrin and CCK(Ref: Yamada's Textbook of Gastroenterology,5th ed p.284)Gastrin and CCK deficiencies can cause Gastric mucosal atrophy
Physiology
G.I.T.
true
false
false
false
false
false
df6cc889-5f52-491a-b0ec-e704bcf8bedb
Oogonia at the time of bih, is present in which of the following stage of meiosis?
Prophase 1
Metaphase 1
Anaphase 1
Telophase 1
0
single
Oogenesis Near the time of bih, all primary oocytes have staed prophase of meiosis I, but instead of proceeding into metaphase, they enter the diplotene stage, a resting stage during prophase that is characterized by a lacy network of chromatin Primary oocytes remain in prophase and do not finish their first meiotic division before pubey is reached, apparently because of oocyte maturation inhibitor (OMI), a substance secreted by follicular cells. The total number of primary oocytes at bih is estimated to vary from 700,000 to 2 million. During childhood most oocytes become atretic; only approximately 400,000 are present by the beginning of pubey, and fewer than 500 will be ovulated. Some oocytes that reach maturity late in life have been dormant in the diplotene stage of the first meiotic division for 40 years or more before ovulation. Whether the diplotene stage is the most suitable phase to protect the oocyte against environmental influences is unknown. The fact that the risk of having children with chromosomal abnormalities increases with maternal age indicates that primary oocytes are vulnerable to damage as they age. (Refer: Langman's Medical Embryology, 9th Edition, Chapter. 1, Pg 21 - 22)
Anatomy
All India exam
false
false
false
false
false
false
575f4d23-4fcc-46b1-8a31-1b4115297c3b
Compartment devoid of neurovascular bundle
Anterior compartment of leg
Posterior deep compartment of leg
Posterior superficial compartment of leg
Lateral compartment of leg
2
single
Posterior superficial compartment of leg is devoid of neurovascular bundle
Anatomy
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
23709d9d-e0c7-4934-b8b8-d6f70c068720
In amyloidosis Beta pleated sheet will be seen in-
X-ray crystallography
Electron microscope
Spiral electron microscope
Congo red stain
0
multi
Beta pleated sheets in amyloidosis is seen by X- ray crystallography. Basic Pathology, Robbins. Page no.:156
Pathology
General pathology
false
false
false
false
false
false
54f58f03-ac4b-4aa5-8e4c-bf2073734dd8
Enzyme involved in Variegate porphyria
Ferrochelatase
Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
ALA dehydratase
1
single
Enzyme InvolvedType Major Signs and SymptomsResults of Laboratory TestsProtoporphyrinogen oxidaseVariegate porphyria (hepatic)Photosensitivity, abdominal pain,neuropsychiatric symptomsUrinary ALA, PBG, and coproporphyrinIII and fecal protoporphyrinIX increasedRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 31 Porphyrins & Bile Pigments
Biochemistry
Metabolism of protein and amino acid
false
false
false
false
false
false
1ae5d699-b3f1-4702-989f-f4f1d51ecf74
Size of paicle for aerosol therapy/respirable dust is?
0.5-1
5-Jan
10-May
15-Oct
1
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1-5 o The two type of devices used for aerosol therapy are matered-dose inhalers and nebulizer. Both devices provide a range of paicle sizes that includes the desired 1-5 range.
Pharmacology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
b3ef04ef-7f91-49b8-b77b-58065ca57198
Rules followed amongst medical professionals which are mutual ?
Medical etiquettes
Medical ethics
Privileged communication
Vicarious responsibility'
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Medical etiquettes Medical etiquettesMedical etiquettes : It refers to existing customs of brotherhood among members of medical profession, i.e. couesy followed between members of medical profession, e.g. it is a custom not to charge another doctor or his close relatives. Medical ethicsThe earliest code of medical ethics was Hippocratic oath. It is modified by World Medical Association, and was named as `Declaration of Geneva'; it is followed by MCI as code of medical ethics.
Forensic Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
191f2f7c-eb14-4b08-8718-310837de839f
EEG rhythm recorded from the surface of the scalp during REM sleep -
Alpha
Beta
Delta
Theta
1
single
B i.e. Beta
Physiology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
d5f92859-b0ca-4f89-b98b-781c5a1eb615
The fastest acting schizonticidal drug among the following is:
Artemether
Mefloquine
Chloroquine
Proguanil
0
single
Artemether-lumefantrine ​ Lumefantrine is an orally active, high efficacy, long-acting erythrocytic schizontocide, related chemically and in mechanism of action to halofantrine and MQ. Like the other schizontocides, vivax hypnozoites are not affected. Lumefantrine is highly lipophilic; absorption starts after 2 hours of ingestion and peaks at 6-8 hours. Antimalarial action is slower than CQ. Plasma protein binding is 99%, and it is metabolized predominantly by CYP3A4. Terminal t½  is  2- 3 days, which is prolonged to 4 -6 days in malaria patients. ​ Lumefantrine is used only in combination with artemether, as FDC tablets. The two components protect each other from plasmodial resistance. ​ As  such, no clinically relevant resistance has developed so far. Clinical efficacy is high achieving 95- 99% cure rate. Artemether-lumefantrine is  active even in multidrug resistant Plasmodium falciparum areas, including  MQ-resistant.​ Key Concept:​ Artemisinin derivatives like dihydroartemisinin, arteether and artemether, etc., are fastest acting  antimalarial drugs.​ Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 889​ ​
Pharmacology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
5892c2b8-7628-42bd-91f8-9a8a91962a41
All of the following trigger the intrinsic pathway of programmed cell death, except:
Withdrawal of growth factor stimulus
Radiation injury
Activation of Fas receptor by FasL
Intracellular protein misfolding
2
multi
Apoptosis is also referred to as 'programmed cell death'. Mitochondrial (Intrinsic) pathway of apoptosis is triggered due to cellular injury caused by: Growth factor withdrawal DNA damage (by radiation, toxins, free radicals) Protein misfolding (ER stress) Death receptor (Extrinsic) pathway of apoptosis is triggered by activation of Fas and TNF receptors. The ligand for Fas receptor is called Fas ligand (FasL). FasL is expressed on T cells that recognize self antigens and on some CTLs that kill virus-infected and tumor cells.
Pathology
Apoptosis
false
false
false
false
false
false
668eedaf-9165-4f2e-b86e-e9973eb8727e
Merciful anosmia is seen in
Nasal polyp
Atrophic rhinitis
Rhinosporidiosis
Rhinoscleroma
1
single
Merciful anosmia is seen in atrophic rhinitis(Ozaena). There is foul smell from the nose, but the patient himself is unaware of smell due to marked anosmia due to degenerative changes Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 173.
ENT
Nose and paranasal sinuses
false
false
false
false
false
false
fc5e8494-369c-4353-b1f8-b1b01f1e93dd
Adson's test is used for determining vascular insufficiency. It is useful in:-
Peripheral vascular disease
Varicose veins
Cervical rib
AV fistula
2
single
Adson's test is used for determining vascular insufficiency due to Cervical rib.
Surgery
Aerial disorders
false
false
false
false
false
false
551419bc-ddb4-43f7-8d39-f4ba6c6daefe
The pectoralis major is classifies as a
Spiral Muscle
Cruciate muscle
Fusiform muscle
Bipennate Muscle
0
single
Pectoralis major muscle is typically classified as a spiral Muscle. Muscles with spiral or twisted fasciculi are found in Trapezius, Pectoralis major, Latissimus dorsi, and supinator. Spiral or Twisted: The muscle fibers undergo a twist of approximately 180 degrees between their medial and lateral attachement. Spiral or Twisted Muscle: Pectoralis major Latissimus dorsi Trapezius Supinator Some skeletal muscles may be classified into more than one category. Pectoralis Major muscle has been classified both as convergent (or Triangular muscle) and Spiral Muscle in different textbooks. Note that Pectoralis major has been classified as &;Spiral &; in Gray&;s text and hence this has been selected as the single best answer of choice for this question. Convergent may be selected as the correct answer if spiral is not provided amongst the options. Ref: Gray&;s anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 113
Anatomy
Upper limb
false
false
false
false
false
false
773b5d6e-e653-4b10-9d6c-cdc05b9aa06e
Non-vitamin coenzyme is
Lipoic acid
CoA
S-adenosyl methionine
Niacin
0
single
Vitamins are organic molecules that function in a wide variety of capacities within the body. The most prominent function of the vitamins is to serve as cofactors (co-enzymes) for enzymatic reactions. The distinguishing feature of the vitamins is that they generally cannot be synthesized by mammalian cells and, therefore, must be supplied in the diet. The vitamins are of two distinct types, water soluble and fat soluble Alpha-lipoic acid, LA, (chemical name: 1,2-dithiolane-3-pentanoic acid; also known as thioctic acid), is a naturally occurring dithiol compound synthesized enzymatically in the mitochondrion from the medium-chain fatty acid octanoic acid. Because LA can be synthesized in the body it is not technically considered a vitamin but because of its vital role in overall cellular metabolism, it is considered as an impoant, but not necessary, dietary supplement. Given that LA is a necessary cofactor for mitochondrial a-ketoacid dehydrogenases, it thus serves a critical role in mitochondrial energy metabolism. In addition to de novo synthesis, LA is also absorbed intact from dietary sources, and it transiently accumulates in many tissues
Biochemistry
Enzymes
false
false
false
false
false
false
18b35cee-37e3-40ba-b6f0-15e6a64906fd
Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant that acts by inhibiting
Factor Xa more than factor II
Both factor Xa and factor II equally
Only factor Xa
Only factor II
2
multi
Fondaparinux is a synthetic congener of Heparin containing only active pentasaccharide unit and inhibits only Xa. It doesn't inhibit thrombin (factor II a).
Pharmacology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
ca961b99-1db2-4d00-83f8-2f7050477d15
CD-10 is seen in-
ALL
CLL
HCL
CML
0
multi
In acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, immunophenotyping pre B cell type: typically positive for pan-B cell markers CD19,CD10,CD9a. Reference textbook of Pathology 7th edition author Harsha Mohan page number 354
Pathology
Haematology
false
false
false
false
false
false
872b280b-6249-4bbd-96b7-07c9fa7efce7
All of the following are true about Berry aneurysm except:
Most common type of intracranial aneurysm
Most common site is anterior communicating aery-anterior cerebral junction
Rupture of aneurysm usually occurs at the apex or dome
Surgical clipping is preferred over endovascular coil occlusion
3
multi
Berry aneurysm Most common type of intracranial aneurysm Most common site is anterior communicating aery-anterior cerebral junction in Circle of Willis Rupture of aneurysm usually occurs at the apex or dome Endovascular coil occlusion is preferred over Surgical clipping
Surgery
Cerebrovascular Diseases
false
false
false
false
false
false
e5693c3d-9d58-43f3-a76f-4f97188c6aba
Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into which of the following lymph nodes:
Sacral nodes
Deep inguinal nodes
Internal inguinal nodes
Superficial inguinal nodes
1
single
Lymphatics from glans penis, prostatic urethra, spongy urethra and superficial inguinal nodes drains into deep inguinal lymph nodes. Ref: Grant's Atlas of Anatomy By A M R Agur, 13th Edition, Page 233
Anatomy
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
31c3b711-1a93-447b-b56b-7553fbb48dcc
X-rays findings of Fibrous Dysplasia is:
Ground glass density
Calcifications
Coical thickening
Bony expansion
0
single
Ground glass density
Radiology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
dc386be2-36fe-470c-9e93-74170ae833ee
Pigbel is caused by:
Echinococcus
T. saginata
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetani
2
single
Pigbel is caused by by Clostridium perfringens. C. perfringens produces clinical syndromes as follows: a) Necrotizing enteritis/Pigbel Due to contaminated meat products. Incubation Period- 8-24 hrs. Involves Heat labile enterotoxin but spores are heat resistant. (b) Food poisoning (c) Soft tissue infections (d) Septicemia NOTE Clostridium perfringens causes stormy fermentation of lactose in litmus milk
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology (Gram Positive Bacilli, Gram Negative Bacilli)
false
false
false
false
false
false
e88c57b5-8d47-48ac-9228-fd7f54a64023
All of the following are Preleukemic conditions, Except:
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria (PNH)
Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria (PCH)
Myelodysplasia
Aplastic anemia
1
multi
Answer is B (Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria (PCH)) Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH) is a benign self-limiting autoimmune hemolytic anemia. PCH does not undergo leukemic transformation and is hence not considered a Preleukemic condition. Recovery is the rule in Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria may be considered a Preleukemic condition PNH may evolve into Aplastic anemia and PNH may manifest itself in patients who previously have Aplastic Anemia. Rarely (estimated 1-2% (Ian cases) PNH may terminate in Acute Myeloid Leukemia'. - Harrison 18th/883 Myelodysplasia (Myelodysplastic Syndrome) is a Preleukemic condition Myelodysplastia is a clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder leading to impaired cell proliferation and differentiation Cvtogenetic abnormalities are found in approximately one half of patients and some of the same specific lesions are also seen in frank leukemia. The type and number of cytogenetic abnormalities strongly correlate with the probability of leukemic transformation and survival' Aplastic Anemia may be considered a Preleukemic condition `Recent studies have shown that long term survivors of acquired aplastic anemia may be at high risk of subsequent malignant diseases or late clonal hematological diseases often years after successful immunosuppressive therapy. One Hypothesis has postulated that aplastic anemia is a Preleukemic condition'.
Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
665355bf-9ec6-468e-893a-6b294604025a
Carcinoma cervix presents with:
Postcoital bleed
Abnormal vaginal bleed
Purulent discharge per vaginam
All of the above
3
multi
Ans. D. All of the aboveCarcinoma cervix has a bimodal peak one at 30-35 yrs and a second peak at 50-55 yrs. Presentation is typically abnormal vaginal bleeding -- in reproductive age group with metrorrhagia and in postmenopausal women with postmenopausal bleeding. There can be a cervical growth which can lead to postcoital bleeding. It undergoes necrosis then there can be purulent discharge per vaginam. Sometimes cancer cervix can present with VVF and with also with features of uremia.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Antepartum Haemorrhage
false
false
false
false
false
false
2f4747c0-8aba-44f6-9c79-0b11b8b7b266
Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with:
Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors
Features of intoxication due to alcohol
Sixth nerve palsy
Karsakoff psychosis
0
single
A i.e. Autonomic Hyperactivity & tremors
Psychiatry
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
7b355652-65fa-49bb-814b-b80060654dfa
H pylori -
Gram - ye nonflagellate spiral organism
Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa
Does not infect duodenal mucosa
Antibiotics not effective
1
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa H. pylori, though initially infects the gastric mucosa only, may later on infect the duodenal mucosa. the process is as follows : Infection of gastric mucosa leads to hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion. Acid hypersecretion leads to metaplasia in the duodenal mucosa. "This duodenal metaplasia allows H. pylori to colonize the duodenal mucosa and in these patients, the risk of developing a duodenal ulcer increases 50 fold" - Schwaz
Surgery
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
87271b6f-485e-40c6-905d-95dfcbc85f23
The bowel can get strangulated in all of the following space except -
Rectouterine pouch
lleocolic recess
Paraduodenal recess
Omental bursa
0
multi
Omental bursa, Paraduodenal recess and ileocolic recess are Peritoneal recesses. Peritoneal recesses These are small pockets of the peritoneal cavity enclosed by small, inconstant folds of the peritoneum. These are best observed in fetuses and are mostly obliterated in adults. Sometimes they persist to form potential sites for an internal hernia and strangulation. These are : A) Lesser sac or omental bursa  B) Duodenal recesses Superior duodenal recess Inferior duodenal recess Para duodenal recess Retroduodenal recess Duodenojejunal (or mesocolic) recess Mesenterico-parietal fossa (of Waldeyer) Superior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess) Inferior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess) Retrocaecal recess C) Caecal fossa D) Intersigmoid recess
Surgery
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
815ba2a7-eb3c-43d1-a2ad-122cc9084ef3
Embrasure clasp are usually used in cases of
Class I cases with modifications
Class II cases with modifications
Class III cases without modifications
All of the above
2
multi
In the fabrication of an unmodified Class II or Class III partial denture, there are no edentulous spaces on the opposite side of the arch to aid in clasping. Mechanically, this is a disadvantage. However, when the teeth are sound and retentive areas are available or when multiple restorations are justified, clasping can be accomplished by means of an embrasure clasp.
Dental
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
69e2ab08-f073-459b-a56e-070bb451a9f0
Several of the older patients in your practice intend to pursue exercise programs. They have no cardiac symptoms, but some do have vascular risk factors such as diabetes or hypertension. In these patients, which of the following is true about exercise electrocardiography?
it is an invasive procedure
it is contraindicated in patients over 65 years of age
it detects latent disease
it has a morbidity of approximately 5%
2
multi
Exercise electrocardiography represents an increasingly popular noninvasive method for early detection of latent ischemic heart disease. As with other diagnostic tests, the exercise ECG is of most clinical value when the pretest probability of disease is moderate (i.e., 30-70%). In men over 40 and women over 50 who plan to start vigorous exercise, use of exercise ECG is possibly, but not definitely, supported by the evidence (class IIb).
Medicine
C.V.S.
false
false
false
false
false
false
eb9fa193-fcb3-43cc-a687-3e1bef2dacbc
True regarding PPH
Type B lynch suture used
With new advances both atonic and traumatic PPH can be reduced
More common in multipara and Associated with polyhydramnios both
All or the above
3
multi
Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Type B lynch suture used; With new advances both atonic and traumatic PPH can be reduced; More common in multipara; and Associated with polyhydramnios PPH is more common in multipara due to laxed abdomen and associated factors like adherent placenta and anemia . Overdistension of uterus as in multiple pregnancy, hydraminos and large baby also lead to PPH . Incidence of atonic and traumatic PPH can be reduced with new advances or rather by intelligent anticipation, skilled supervision, prompt detection and effective institution of therapy. B lynch suture are used for management of PPH . Mifepristone is not used in the management of PPH .
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
16d33309-63c0-49b6-b4eb-cb18c78929a4
A 60–year old diabetic patient has an uneventful phacoemulsification with IOL implantation. He presented with pain, diminished vision, redness, watering and a greyish yellow pupillary reflex on the third postoperative day. Examination revealed circumcorneal congestion, aqueous cells 4+, hypopyon in the anterior chamber with posterior synechiae and retrolental flare. The most likely diagnosis is –
Keratitis
Glaucoma
Endophthalmitis
Postoperative cyclitis
2
single
Painful red eye with diminution of vision along with evidence of aqueous flare, hypopyon and loss of normal red reflex, three days after cataract surgery suggests a diagnosis of Acute Postoperative Endophthalmitis.
Ophthalmology
null
false
false
true
false
false
false
9df47b70-b68b-4383-bc3c-0b721ffe1d33
vWF is used as a marker for
Angiosarcoma
Polycythemia vera
Leukemia
Option not recalled
0
multi
Ans. A. AngiosarcomaExplanationThe vWF is the least sensitive of the vascular markers and is positive in 50% to 75% of vascular tumors.von Willebrand factor (vWF):It is a glycoprotein produced uniquely by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes, is routinely used to identify vessels in tissue sections.Vessel density in tumor specimens, as determined by immuno-histochemical staining for vWF or other endothelial cell markers, is a negative prognostic factor for many solid tumors.vWF is heterogeneously distributed throughout the vasculature, transcriptional control in response to the tissue microenvironment being responsible for local variations in endothelial cell levels of vWF.Fibroblast growth factor-2 and vascular endothelial growth factor, potent angiogenesis inducers expressed in a variety of tumors, up-regulate expression of vWF mRNA and protein in cultured endothelial cells with a synergistic effect.Measurement of vWF mRNA in tumors detect activated endothelium or angiogenesis.
Pathology
Blood
false
false
false
false
false
false
ea32a776-76f9-4b5f-b44a-fcbe94b16fc6
An ectopic pregnancy is shed as
Decidua vera
Decidua basalis
Decidua capsularis
Decidua rubra
0
single
The endometrial lining of the uterus is called decidua during pregnancy, If there is feilization and pregnancy occurs, the decidua differentiated intoDecidua basalis - becomes the maternal poion of the placentaDecidua - capsularis - the thin layer covering the ovumDecidua vera or parietalis - which is the rest of the decidua lining the uterine cavity outside the site of implantation.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
false
false
false
false
false
false
cbac1b49-aa5d-480d-ae80-b8c98e61f8c3
A type of teiary waste water treatment process is -
Reverse osmosis
Sedimentation
Both
Neither
3
multi
Sewage treatment Primary treatment : Physical treatment to remove solids (from the liquid) Secondary treatment : Bilogical treatment brought about by aerobic and anaerobic bacteria Teiary treatment : Improving fuher the quality of effluent (advanced waste treatment process), sludge (stabilisation and dewatering), assist sedimentation and sludge treatment (chemical treatment by the addition of coagulants) Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 800
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
false
false
false
false
false
false
cd9030a3-7310-4fe0-a148-f24e7db7a46e
Pseudomyxoma peritonei is seen with -
Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma ovary
Carcinoid appendix
Endometrial carcinoma
Ileal carcinoid
0
single
null
Pathology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
31611265-c0ab-43e0-8240-9ea9dcb1a94c
How many days took to form 1mm layer of enamel:
90 days.
140 days.
240 days.
180 days.
2
single
Mean of daily rate of enamel formation – 3.5µm/day to 4µm/day So to form 1mm thickness total approximately 240 days needed.
Dental
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
dd65a265-9e6f-43fd-92da-1ccc13ebb5d1
Asthma is which type of hypersensitivity?
Type -1 hypersensitivity
Type -2 hypersensitivity
Type -3 hypersensitivity
Type -4 hypersensitivity
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type -1 hypersensitivity HypersensitivityType I (IgE mediated)Type II (IgG IgM and complement mediated)o Eczemao Blood transfusion reactionso Hay fevero Erythroblastosis fetaliso Asthmao Autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia or agmulocytosiso Atopyo Pemphigus vulgariso Urticariao Good pasture syndromeo Anaphylactic shocko Bullous pemphigoido Acute dermatitiso Pernicious anemiao Theobald smith phenomenono Acute rheumatic fevero Prausnitz Kusnter (PK) reactiono Diabetes mellituso Casonistesto Graves diseaseo Schultz-Dale phenomenono Myasthenia gravisType III (IgG IeM. complement and leucocyte mediated)Tvpe IV (Cell mediated)o Local-Arthus reactiono Tuberculin testo Systemic-serum sicknesso Lepromin testo Schick testo Sarcoidosiso Polyarteritis nodosa (PANo Tuberculosiso Rheumatoid arthritiso Contact dermatitiso SLEo Granulomatous inflammationo Acute viral hepatitiso Type I lepra reactiono Penicillamine toxicityo Patch testo Hyperacute graft rejectiono Temporal arteritiso Type 2 lepra reaction (ENL)o Jones mote reaction (cutaneous basophilic HSN)o Hypersensitivity pneumonitiso Graft rejectiono R.Ao Fairleys testo Infective endocarditiso Frie's testo Henoch schonlein purpura o Glomerulonephritis
Pathology
Hypersensitivity Reactions: Immune-Mediated Injury
false
false
false
false
false
false
750c5de4-b593-43b6-9e13-169fb08a5485
This is which Endotracheal tube:-
Flexometallic tube
Laser tube
RAE tube
Double lumen tube
1
multi
LASER TUBE USED FOR LASER SURGERY Laser Resistant Endotracheal Tubes The most frequent laser related complication is airway fire. Laser Resistant ETTs are used to prevent airway fires during laser surgery of the airway. Initially, fires are located on surface of ETT and cause thermal injury to tissues. If the fire burns through to interior of ETT, O2 and positive pressure ventilation create a blow torch effect, blowing heat and toxic products down into lung. Cuff puncture allowing O2 enriched atmosphere can also increase chance of fire after laser burst.
Anaesthesia
Airway
false
false
false
false
false
false
29ba8b77-ce34-488a-abcc-c4224e50fa23
Oral evidence is more impoant than written testimony as:
Oral evidence cannot be cross-examined
Oral evidence can be cross-examined
Documentary evidence requires no proof
None
1
multi
Oral evidence is more superior to documentary evidence, as the witness can be cross examined. Doctor's repo is accepted only when he comes and deposes oral evidence in the cou ( S. 45 IEA). Exceptions to oral evidence: Dying declaration. Expe opinion given in a book or treatise. Evidence of doctor recorded in a lower Cou. Evidence by witness in a previous judicial proceedings. Repos of chemical examiner, explosives expe, fingerprint expe, serologist etc. Public records like death, bih ceificate. Hospital records
Forensic Medicine
Indian Legal system, Legal sections & Cou procedures
false
false
false
false
false
false
c4946dde-f87a-4d98-80fd-c42f99f79648
Most common anterior mediastinal tumour?
Thymoma
Neurofibroma
Pericardial cyst
Bronchogenic cyst
0
single
The designation "thymoma" is restricted to tumors of thymic epithelial cells. Such tumors typically also contain benign immature T cells. The tumors usually occur in adults older than 40 years of age; thymomas are rare in children. Males and females are affected equally. Most arise in the anterior superior mediastinum, but sometimes they occur in the neck, thyroid, pulmonary hilus, or elsewhere.
Pathology
FMGE 2019
false
false
false
false
false
false
93e7eecd-c5c0-4d02-bf94-1a07a3db34b4
Tumor suppressor gene is not involved in ?
Breast cancers
Neurofibromatosis
Multiple endocrine neoplasia
Retinoblastoma
2
single
o Multiple endocrine neoplasia involves RET protooncogene (not tumor suppressor gene).
Biochemistry
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
42982222-1122-4b31-b8ad-d303c5125f74
A person was found dead with bluish green frothy discharge at the angle of mouth and nostrils. What is the diagnosis?
Arsenic poisoning
Copper poisoning
Mercury poisoning
Lead poisoning
1
single
Clinical Features Acute Poisoning Ingestion: * Metallic taste,* Increased salivation * Colicky abdominal pain * Nausea and vomiting. Vomitus is bluish or greenish in color * Diarrhea * Myalgia * Pancreatitis * Methemoglobinemia * Hemolysis * Jaundice * Oliguria and renal failure * Convulsions * Delirium * Coma. Inhalation of Copper Fumes or Dust Causes * Respiratory tract irritation * Cough * Conjunctivitis * Metal fume fever. Chronic Poisoning * Abdominal pain * Greenish line on dental margins of gum (Clapton's line) * Vineyard Sprayer's lung disease: Copper sulphate is used as an insecticide spray in vineyards. During spraying, chronic inhalation of copper sulphate causes this disease. * Greenish hair discolouration * Wilson's disease. REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO 309
Forensic Medicine
Poisoning
false
false
false
false
false
false
3cbc68e7-f27c-4339-aa66-0e9fbb8db491
Near double stranded DNA among the following
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
1
single
(B) Hepatitis B # Genome of HBV is made of circular DNA, but it is unusual because the DNA is not fully double-stranded.> One end of the full length strand is linked to the viral DNA polymerase.> The genome is 3020-3320 nucleotides long.
Microbiology
Misc.
false
false
false
false
false
false
e0d01b59-1d6b-4370-a61f-3ee31d27e7e9
Voyeurism is punished under
354 A IPC
354 B IPC
354 C IPC
354 D IPC
2
single
Refer the byte "Legal sections".
Forensic Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
3a938ac1-5eed-45cb-8e4b-23891900a986
Which of the following enzymes unwind DNA?
Ligase
DNA primase
Helicase
DNA polymerase
2
single
Helicases are enzymes that bind and may even remodel nucleic acid or nucleic acid-protein complexes. There are DNA and RNA helicases. DNA helicases are essential during DNA replication because they separate double-stranded DNA into single strands allowing each strand to be copied Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e p401
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
false
false
false
false
false
false
cadaed76-a710-49b5-a37d-abc7248ca2cf
NOT a feature of trachoma:
Corneal opacity
Chalazion
Entropion
Herbe's pits
1
single
Clinical features of trachoma - Lacrimation Photophobia Red eyes Hall mark - Sago grain follicles Herbe's pits seen Arlt's line on upper palpebral conjunctiva seen - sub conjunctival line of fibrosis Arlt's triangle seen in anterior uveitis - lower 1.3rd of the corneal endothelium where Keratic Precipitates settle due to the normal aqueous flow dynamics Pannus seen (nonspecific sign) Chalazion are not associated with trachoma- chronic inflammatory granuloma of the meibomian gland Seen in people with Oily skin Ocular rosacea
Ophthalmology
FMGE 2018
false
false
false
false
false
false
efe0b5f6-5281-4413-b5b3-7838ac367e6f
All are given for management of burns EXCEPT?
Hypotonic solutions
Albumin
25% dextrose
Hartmann solution/ATLS
0
multi
Ans. (a) Hypotonic solutionsRef: Sabiston 19th ed. /530-33
Surgery
Initial Care of the Burn Patient
false
false
false
false
false
false
d6ff563c-5f17-4d39-9def-b1f672e809f6
Most common site of Curling's ulcer
Ileum
Stomach
Duodenum
Esophagus
2
single
Duodenum [Ref Robbins 7/e p819; Curling's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer of the duodenum described in 1842 by Curling as a complication of burns. Cushing's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer of stomach, duodenum and esophagus seen in intracranial injury, operations or tumor.
Anaesthesia
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
234d09c6-ba3b-471e-9c19-af7e575b2381
Parts of some human skeletal remains are brought to you. The pelvis is complete, yet the individual bones of the pelvis, the ilium, ischium, and pubis have just staed to fuse together. The subpubic angle you estimate at 60deg and the pelvic brim has a distinctive hea shaped appeareance. On the basis of this information, you guess the remains are of which of the following?
3-year-old female
4-year-old male
14-year-old male
30-year-old female
2
single
Because the sub- pubic angle is about 60deg and the pelvic brim is hea shaped, you are look ing at a male. The bones of the pelvis arise from three different centers of ossification and generally fuse together at about pubey through the twenty-third year, thus you know you have to be looking at a 14-year-old male, not a 3-year-old or an 80-year- old male.
Surgery
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
344c4767-4ee1-4ab1-a7f0-090cdc83730e
Nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomic for: September 2009
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Goodpasture's syndrome
Renal amyloidosis
Diabetic nephropathy
3
single
Ans. D: Diabetic nephropathy The constellation of renal changes attributed to Diabetes mellitus are- Armanni-Ebstein lesion, aerionephrosclerosis, aeriolonephrosclerosis, chronic interstitial nephritis, diabetic glomerulosclerosis, fatty changes in renal tubules, glomerulonephritis, Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease--focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis, nephrotic syndrome, papillary necrosis, and pyelonephritis.
Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
4e702680-fb68-4328-a0c0-3c071931c65f
Fluid levels are not visible in -
Meconeum ileus
Intussusception
Colon pouch
Duodenal obstruction
0
single
Answer is 'a' i.e. Meconeum ileus In meconium ileus meconium is so thick that it is unable to form air-fluid level desptie complete small intestinal obstruction (Note the multiple air-fluid level is a feature of mechanical small bowel obstruction & paralytic ileus).
Surgery
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
42208db7-4760-48c8-b07a-7e60c1e364db
A neonate with doughy soft lump in neck causing distortion of face and audible grunt. Diagnosis is:
Cystic hygroma
Brachial cyst
Sternocleidomastoid Tumor
Birth injury
0
single
Ans. (a) Cystic hygroma.* Cystic hygroma is a form of Lymphangioma caused by benign aberrant development of lymphatics and presents at birth with airway obstruction.* Imaging with USG, CT scan or MRI can identify the extent of lesion and surgery is required. (EXIT Procedure). Doxycycline, ethanol and sildenafil are Sclerosants and sclerotherapy can be done.* Sternocleidomastoid tumor is seen after a traumatic birth and leads to lump in neck with torticollis.* Brachial cyst is small and located on anterior border of sternocleidomastoid and does not cause respiratory compromise.Image source. style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0">
Pediatrics
Miscellaneous
false
false
false
false
false
false
b10effd2-c17d-4e05-99f5-1ecd2d35c0ef
In reflux nephropathy, glomerular lesion is-
Focal GN.
Membranous G.N.
Membrano proliferative G.N.
Minimal change disease
0
single
null
Pathology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
838221f5-e93b-48e0-a053-aac1bddcf996
Minimum antenatal visit as per MCH is ?
1
2
3
4
3
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
3afb23ab-3857-4201-b203-a28ed72b4baa
What is the treatment of Choice for Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Blood transfusion
Steroids
IV immunoglobin
Splenectomy
0
single
Ans. (a) SteroidsRef: Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition page 724Medical Treatment of ITP* The treatment of choice is medical- oral prednisolone 1mg/kgproduces dramatic response in 50-70% cases.* Intravenous immunoglobin is indicated for internal bleeding.Refractory ITP* Failure of initial therapy mentioned above.* Rituximab given IV* Thromboplastin Receptor antagonists - Eltrombopag and RomiplostimSplenectomy* Most common indication for elective splenectomy* For patients with low platelet count should have platelets available at surgery but should be infused only after ligating the pedicle.* Should not be given preoperatively
Surgery
Spleen
false
false
false
false
false
false
a3f5bb6c-0e31-41ec-a2db-fd23b80bd585
Normal value of tear film break-up time
5-10 seconds
10-15 seconds
15-30 seconds
> 35 seconds
2
single
Tear Film break-up time: It is the interval between a complete blink and appearance of first randomly disributed dry spot on the cornea. Normal value - 15-35 seconds.
Ophthalmology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
c6ca97a4-8030-49f8-a85c-98e4127470b5
Not a diagnostic/defining criteria for amnestic disorder
Visual hallucination
Transient delusion
Impaired concentration/attention
All
3
multi
A i.e. Visual hallucination; B i.e. Transient delusion; C i.e. Impaired concentration/attention For diagnosis DSM IV requires Development of memory impairment as manifested by impaired ability to learn new information or the inability to recall previously learned informationQ. Memory disturbance causes significant impairment in social & occupation functioning & represents a significant decline from a previous level of functioning. Memory disturbance does not occur exclusively during the course of a delirium & dementia. May be d/t general medical condition (including trauma) or substance induced (alcohol, hypnotic, sedative etc) . ICD-10 criteria for organic amnesic syndrome A. Memory impairment, manifest in both Defect in recent memory (impaired learning of new material i.e. antegrade amnesia)Q. Reduced ability to recall past experiences (retrograde amnesia)Q. B. Absence of (or there is no) Defect in immediate recall (tested by digit span) Clouding of consciousness & disturbance of attentionQ (delirium) Global intellectual decline (dementia)Q C. Objective evidence (history, examination or lab test) of an insult to or disease of brain especially involving b/I diencephalic & medial temporal structures (but other than alcoholic encephalopathy) . * Confabulation, emotional change (apathy & lack of initiative) & lackof insight are addition pointers to diagnosis but are not invariably present.
Psychiatry
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
c086efe7-beca-4176-aeb8-6a489d3eafac
The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute inflammation, except?
Exudation
Granuloma formation
Vasodilation
Margination
1
multi
Granuloma formation occurs in chronic inflammation.
Pathology
null
false
false
false
false
true
false
c7139a9d-35f3-4083-a34b-c2afeb2d5b60
Which of the following is a maker of Paget's disease of the mammary gland?
CEA
S- 100
HMB 45
Neuron specific enolase
0
single
Neoplastic cells in Paget's disease of mammary glands express markers CEA, CK 7 and GCDFP 15. The neoplastic cells also express androgen receptors and HER2/neu. Paget's disease of the nipple is a superficial manifestation of an underlying breast carcinoma. In most cases tumor cells have spread to the skin of the nipple and areola from underlying invasive ductal carcinoma or ductal carcinoma in situ. Ref: Harrison's Principles Of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 439, 563; Skin Cancer - A World-Wide Perspective By Reinhard Dummer, page 129; Bailey and Love's Sho practice of surgery 24th edition , page 837.
Surgery
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
49f1e397-4d3e-404c-bdb0-b570b2155938
Rigor mois appears last in: March 2012
Eyelids
Neck
Lower limb
Toes
3
single
Ans: D i.e. Toes Rigor mois first appears in the involuntary muscles; the myocardium. It begins in eyelids, neck and lower jaw and passes upwards to the muscle of the face, and downwards to the muscles of the chest, upper limbs, abdomen and lower limbs and lastly in the finger and toes
Forensic Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
b7297ddd-e12e-48ee-b715-693836b03fd2
Superior oblique muscle performs action of:
Intoion
Extoion
Elevation
Medial rotation
0
single
A i.e. Intoion
Ophthalmology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
e45d1003-936c-4ac7-8735-c12202d5a8a4
Eustachian tube opens into which part of tympanic cavity?
Medial
Lateral
Anterior
Posterior
2
single
null
Unknown
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
9289f230-4d28-4346-876b-6e623410f295
Centriole is absent in
Liver
Spleen
Intestine
Kidney
0
single
(Liver) (37-Ganong 23rd), Centrioles in hepatocytes cellular and molecular life sciences vol-24, Number 11, 1157-59, DOI 10; 1007/BFO 214785Centrioles which are small cytoplasmic bodies of about 150-200 nm in diameter and 300-350 nm in length concerned with organization in the spindle during cell division have rarely been reported in adult mammalian liver cellsCENTROSOMES - Near the nucleus in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic aniimal cells is a centrosome. The centrosome is made up of two centrioles and surrounding amorphous pericentriolar material* The centrosomes are microtubule - organizing centers (MTOCs) that contain y- tubulin* Centrioles are responsible for the movement of chromosomes during cell divisions (10.K. Sembulingum 5th)* If there is no centriol in the cell, the cell cannot divide. Neurons of postnatal life have no centrioles hence they cannot divide; hence in the post natal life no new neuron formation can occur. But throughout life, death of individuals neurons continue Hence in old age, there is considerable loss of brain mater (8- S.K chaudhari 6th)
Physiology
General
false
false
false
false
false
false
b0e07342-48df-4091-96cd-3d1fe70cd841
True statements about local anaesthesia – a) It inhibits the generation of action potentialb) Unmyelinated thin fibers are most susceptible than myelinated large fibersc) Toxicity is reduced by addition of vasoconstrictord) Blocks all modalities of sensation at the same time
ac
bc
ad
b
0
multi
Local anesthetics block generation and conduction of nerve impulse (action potential). Myelinated fibers are more susceptible than nonmyelinated fibers and small fibers are more sensitive than large fibers. Addition of vasconstrictor decreases systemic absorption and toxicity. All modalities of sensation are not blocked at the same time because different sensory fibers have different sensitivity. Order of block of sensory modalities :- Temperature > Pain > touch > deep pressure > Proprioception.
Anaesthesia
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
6a04691f-2d79-46dc-94b4-4ac86481fcec
Not true about clofazamine ?
Used in DLE
Causes ichthyosis and hyperpigmentation
Interferes DNA synthesis
Used in lepra reaction
0
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Used in DLE o Clofazimine interferes with template function of DNA, is used in lepra reaction and can cause icthyosis and hyperpigmentation.
Pharmacology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
9c3d4a2b-96c1-4347-8b74-42561ac1abfe
A space maintainer is least indicated for premature loss of a:
Primary maxillary first molar
Primary mandibular first molar
Primary mandibular central incisor
Primary maxillary central incisor
3
single
null
Dental
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
a0070263-ffd4-45c3-a2d9-cae53556b978
Rinsing of eye with water causes blurring of vision. Which of the following is the TRUE cause of blurring?
Elimination of refraction through cornea
Extra refraction through water
Impurities of water
Speed of light is more through water
0
multi
Corneal refractive power is substantial in air but viually eliminated when the eye is under water. Under water, the divergent refraction by the cornea is small since the media on its both sides (water outside and anterior chamber liquid inside) have refractive indices not greatly different from that of the cornea itself. Ref: The Sensory Physiology of Aquatic Mammals By Alexander Ya, Page 232
Ophthalmology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
2eede6c8-bf32-4f85-9cd5-723404e27538
In a pregnant lady with hyperthyroidism , the safest drug to be used is -
Propylthiouracil
Methimazole
Carbimazole
Lugols Iodine
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Propylthiouracil * Propylthiouracil is the DOC for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy.* Methimazole and carbimazole used in early pregnancy have been associated with esophageal and choanal atresia, aplasia cutis, and fetal agranulocytosis.* Graves' disease is the MC cause of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy.* Hashimoto's thyroiditis is the MC cause of hypothyroidism in pregnancy.* Complications associated with both hypo- and hyperthyroidism in pregnancy:1) Recurrent first trimester abortions2) IUGR3) Increased risk of preeclampsia4) Abruption5) Stillbirths, hydrop fetalis6) Preterm labor* Hypothyroidism is also associated with cretinism.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
false
false
false
false
false
true
cab7ac65-4ff8-4879-a43c-469352dc912a
S4 is seen in all of the following, Except:
Thyrotoxicosis
Acute MI
Atrial fibrillation
Hyperophic cardiomyopathy
2
multi
Answer is C (Atrial Fibrillation) Atrial contraction must be present for production of' S4. It is absent in atrial fibrillation. Thyrotoxicosis. Acute MI, and Hyperophic cardiomyopathy are all associated with pathological fouh Hea sound (S4). Fouh Hea Sound (S4): Low frequency sound (low pitched)Q It is a diastolic hea sound that occurs sholy before S1 Q It occurs during the phase of ventricular filling and is associated with an effective atrial contraction Atrial contraction must be present for production of an S4Q It is best heard at the apex in the left lateral position It is better heard with the bell of the stethescopeQ Causes of Pathological Fouh Hea sound Fouh Heah Sound (S4), Atrial Diastolic gallop, and Presystolic Gallop: Decreased ventricular compliance Ventricular hyperophy - Left or right ventricular outflow obstruction - Systemic or pulmonary hypeension - Hyperophic cardiomyopathy Ischemic hea disease - Angina pectoris - Acute myocardial infarction - Old myocardial infarction - Ventricular aneurysm Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy Excessively rapid late diastolic filling secondary to: Vigorous atrial systole Hyperkinetic states - Anemia - Thyrotoxicosis Aeriovenous fistula Acute atrioventricular valve incompetence Arrhythmias Hea block Physiologic S4 may be recordable, but is rarely audible
Medicine
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
a99f0d08-428c-4e26-afb7-f0e30da48953
Which of the following is not a prion disease
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Transmissible mink encephalopathy
Scrapie
Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
3
single
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is a human infection caused by a papova virus. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition.
Microbiology
Virology
false
false
false
false
false
false
a6eba555-444f-4d5e-8906-79d44532bfa0
The drug which may inhibit P450 for warfarin is which one of the following:
Cimetidine
Ethanol
Rifampicin
Procainamide
0
single
null
Pharmacology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
4df6a161-3784-403d-87f7-82e37f08738c
Chemotherapeutic drug effective in the treatment of epithelial ovarian cancer is:a) Carboplatinb) Paclitaxelc) Cyclophosphamided) Methotrexate karnatka
ac
a
ab
bc
2
single
Role of Chemotherapy in Epithelial ovarian tumors
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
81efd66d-cbaa-45e8-a44d-1bf0d3c08c0b
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 19-month-old girl who presented with a 1-week history of an ascending erythematous eruption?
Cellulitis
Hand, foot, and mouth disease
Herpes zoster
Lymphadenitis
2
single
Answer C. Herpes zosterThe results of a scraping from the base of several vesicles were positive for the varicella-zoster virus. The lesions resolved within 2 weeks of treatment with acyclovir. Herpes zoster is unusual in persons younger than 10 years of age, and when it does occur in this age group, the lesions have a predilection for dermatomes supplied by the cervical and sacral nerves.
Medicine
Infection
false
true
false
false
false
true
a511de52-273b-4377-9bf4-fe1a5e1c678f
A 42-year-old man presents with central, crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw. The pain occurred while jogging around the local park. The pain was alleviated with rest. The ECG is normal. Diagnosis is?
Angina pectoris
Acute Pericarditis
STEMI
NSTEMI
0
multi
Ans. A Angina pectorisRef CMDT 2019 pg. 369The patient is having chest pain on jogging which is a presentation of chronic stable Angina. It is aggravated by cold, by anxiety, and by exercise. In the case of a normal resting ECG, an exercise ECG should be obtained. All other choices present with chest pain on rest.
Physiology
Nervous System
false
false
true
false
true
false
5345b7f6-09d2-4cd3-a84d-6e472beb4eee
Alopecia areata is a/ an -
Autoimmune disorder
Allergic disorder
Anaphylactic disorder
Bacterial infection
0
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autoimmune disorder Pathogenesis of alopecia areata1. Autoimmunityo Current evidence suggests that alopecia areata is caused by an abnormality in the immune system. This particular abnormality leads autoimmunity. As a result, body's own immune system attacks the hair follicles and disrupts normal hair formations. Autoimmune pathogenesis is supported by -The germinative zones of hair follicles are surrounded by T-lvmphocytes, where they are not normally present.Sometimes alopecia areata is associated with other autoimmune disorders, e.g. vitiligo, IL4, ulcerative colitis, hypothyroidism.# Frequency of type 1 DM is increased in relative of patients with alopecia areata but not in patient themselves --> alopecia areata may be protective against type 1 DM.2. Genetic factorso Besides autoimmunity genetic factors also have pathogenic role10-20% Patients give family historyfThere is polygenic inheritenceStrong association between alopecia areata and MHC class II, i.e. HLA-DR4, HLA DR-5, HLA DQ-3Genetic disorders like autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type I and Down s syndrome have high incidence of alopecia areata.
Skin
Alopecia
false
false
false
false
false
false
d1f40951-5d1e-4651-9d0f-9cfe96dec804
Allergic BPA which kind of hypersensitivity reaction -
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
0
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type I {Ref: Robbia's 9th/ep. 683]
Unknown
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
8bb1ad2d-37ce-4732-bab5-ebd44c6ec59f
Cerebellar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through which cell -
Golgi cells
Basket cells
Purkinje cells
Oligodendrocytes
2
single
The axons of purkinje cells are the only output through cerebellar cortex. However, it should be kept in mind that the output from the cerebellum is through deep nuclei, purkinje cells axons generally pass to deep nuclei.
Anatomy
null
false
false
false
false
false
false
3af14c57-8fdf-4d1a-87fe-d8946d9083b8
All the following occur in hemostasis except ?
Vasospams of blood vessel
Platelet plug formation
Dissolution of clot by plasmin
None
3
multi
Ans. is None o All the processes from vosoconstriction to dissolution of clot are the pa of hemostasis.
Pathology
null
false
false
false
false
false
false